ReDrOc Posted December 5, 2012 Share Posted December 5, 2012 Ok, so basically I'm doing an essay atm. I was reading up about fixed exchange rates and currency boards and it said this:"Suppose a country has a deficit because it imports too much. Importers take domestic money to the currency board to get foreign exchange they need; the board simply keeps the domestic money, which is retired from circulation"If they're in a trade deficit, why would they want to get give their domestic currency to the currency board when it'll just mean that domestic currency supply will decrease => an appreciation => uncompetitive export prices => larger trade deficitAm I missing something here? Link to comment
Erador Posted December 5, 2012 Share Posted December 5, 2012 You're confusing two distinct points-- the trade deficit of a nation and the actions of individual firms. Link to comment
ReDrOc Posted December 6, 2012 Author Share Posted December 6, 2012 You're confusing two distinct points-- the trade deficit of a nation and the actions of individual firms.If it's a trade deficit of a nation, what then? Link to comment
Erador Posted January 18, 2013 Share Posted January 18, 2013 I don't know what you've covered already, but if the nation "prints its own money" then there won't be a decline in the supply of its own currency. It would just print the money needed. Link to comment
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